- Aug 23, 2007
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I keep seeing posts on the internet where people say f/4 vs f/2.8 is a difference of one stop, a stop being a doubling or halving of the amount of light captured.
But according to my calculations it's not. F/2.8 captures only 40% more light. As I understand it, the apparent aperture opening is the focal length divided by the F number.
So assuming 70mm lens (though it doesn't really matter):
pi*35^2/4 = 962mm^2
pi*35^2/2.8 = 1374mm^2
1374 is 40% more than 962. So where does this "one stop faster" thing come from?
But according to my calculations it's not. F/2.8 captures only 40% more light. As I understand it, the apparent aperture opening is the focal length divided by the F number.
So assuming 70mm lens (though it doesn't really matter):
pi*35^2/4 = 962mm^2
pi*35^2/2.8 = 1374mm^2
1374 is 40% more than 962. So where does this "one stop faster" thing come from?
