- Aug 10, 2001
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I'm stumped. 
An incline makes an angle of "Ø" with the positive x-axis. A ball is thrown upwards at the base of the incline at an angle of "ß" with respect to the positive x-axis. (In other words, the angle between the incline and the velocity vector of the ball is ß- Ø.) If the ball is to land up the incline as far as possible (radially), why should angle "ß" be equal to (1/2)*arctan[-cotØ]?
EDIT: It actually takes about 20 minutes to solve the problem.
An incline makes an angle of "Ø" with the positive x-axis. A ball is thrown upwards at the base of the incline at an angle of "ß" with respect to the positive x-axis. (In other words, the angle between the incline and the velocity vector of the ball is ß- Ø.) If the ball is to land up the incline as far as possible (radially), why should angle "ß" be equal to (1/2)*arctan[-cotØ]?
EDIT: It actually takes about 20 minutes to solve the problem.