2=1

[JoPh]

a = 1
(a^2) = a
(a^2) - 1 = a - 1
(a+1)*(a-1) = (a-1)
(a+1) = (a-1)/(a-1)
2=1

its a math proof joke. yeesh.

 

[KLin]

kthxbye

 

[Ymmy]

REPOST

 

[tranceport]

Originally posted by: KLin
kthxbye

 

[BigPoppa]

Theres a divide by 0 somewhere in there.

 

[AFB]

Originally posted by: KLin
kthxbye

Holy repost Batman :Q

 

[Bootprint]

Originally posted by: BigPoppa
Theres a divide by 0 somewhere in there.

So therefore that's the math for a blackhole.

2 = 0 = .0000000001

 

[Kalvin00]

how.

 

[JoPh]

Originally posted by: Bootprint

Originally posted by: BigPoppa
Theres a divide by 0 somewhere in there.

i know. its a math joke.

 

[MrCodeDude]

a - 1 = 0

0 / 0 = Undefined

 

[MikeMike]

Originally posted by: JoPh
a = 1
(a^2) = a
(a^2) - 1 = a - 1
(a+1)*(a-1) = (a-1)
(a+1) = (a-1)/(a-1)
2=1

wow, ammo + loading + gun + mouth + trigger.

PLEASE

MIKE

 

[waffel]

"1 is equal to 2 for sufficiently large values of 1."

(I dont' remember who said that)

 

[PowerMacG5]

Originally posted by: nourdmrolNMT1

Originally posted by: JoPh
a = 1
(a^2) = a
(a^2) - 1 = a - 1
(a+1)*(a-1) = (a-1)
(a+1) = (a-1)/(a-1)
2=1

wow, ammo + loading + gun + mouth + trigger.

PLEASE

MIKE

I must concur.

 

[JoPh]

you can also do it this way too

let a = b
a² = ab
a² + a² - 2ab = ab + a² - 2ab
2(a² - ab) = a² - ab
2 = 1

 

[Zim Hosein]

Originally posted by: KLin
kthxbye

 

[nick1985]

wait.....


so 1 = .999999?

 

[Chaotic42]

2=1 for extremely large values of 1.

 

[TuxDave]

Using Euler's Formula:

-1 = e^(i*pi) = e^(i*3*pi)
i*pi=i*3pi
1=3

Bwahaha....