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(1+x)^n = x^n

Aug 10, 2001
10,420
2
0
(1+x)^n = x^n
((1+x)^n)^(1/n) = (x^n)^(1/n)
1^(1/n)*(1+x) = 1^(1/n)*x

You get a contradictory statement if you let the nth root of 1 be the same number on both sides of the equation. If you let them be different numbers, then you get all the solutions. Why is that?
 

kevinthenerd

Platinum Member
Jun 27, 2002
2,908
0
76
(1+x)^n = x^n is only approximately true for very large values of x.

but

(1+x)^1 = 1 + x
(1+x)^2 = 1 + x + x + x^2 = 1 + 2x + x^2
(1+x)^3 = 1 + x + x + x^2 + x + x^2 + x^2 + x^3 = 1 + 3x + 3x^2 + x^3

You might want to read http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_triangle


By the way, I thought I came up with something very cool one day, but it really bothered me to discover that I wasn't the first to come up with this idea for polynomials of three or more terms: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_pyramid
 

kevinthenerd

Platinum Member
Jun 27, 2002
2,908
0
76
Originally posted by: SoulAssassin
It's true that you never use this crap when you get out of school.

It depends on what you'll do. A physicist or a research engineer will use it, but your run-of-the-mill bachelor-degree CAD-crunching engineer won't.
 

rocadelpunk

Diamond Member
Jul 23, 2001
5,589
1
81
Originally posted by: kevinthenerd
(1+x)^n = x^n is only approximately true for very large values of x.

but

(1+x)^1 = 1 + x
(1+x)^2 = 1 + x + x + x^2 = 1 + 2x + x^2
(1+x)^3 = 1 + x + x + x^2 + x + x^2 + x^2 + x^3 = 1 + 3x + 3x^2 + x^3

You might want to read http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_triangle


By the way, I thought I came up with something very cool one day, but it really bothered me to discover that I wasn't the first to come up with this idea for polynomials of three or more terms: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_pyramid

pretty impressive you came up with that on your own...can't believe you hadn't heard of pascal triangle though if you're messing around with binomial expansion.
 

sdifox

No Lifer
Sep 30, 2005
100,377
17,934
126
Originally posted by: Random Variable
(1+x)^n = x^n
((1+x)^n)^(1/n) = (x^n)^(1/n)
1^(1/n)*(1+x) = 1^(1/n)*x

You get a contradictory statement if you let the nth root of 1 be the same number on both sides of the equation. If you let them be different numbers, then you get all the solutions. Why is that?

? I can't think of any way (1+x)^n=x^n


Other than n=0 I mean
 

kevinthenerd

Platinum Member
Jun 27, 2002
2,908
0
76
Originally posted by: zerocool1
log (1+x)* log(n)=(log x) * log n

if i'm not mistaken.

No. Divide both sides by log(n). Then your expression reads

log(1+x) = log(x)

Now exponentiate both sides.

1 + x = x

This is not true.
 

kevinthenerd

Platinum Member
Jun 27, 2002
2,908
0
76
Originally posted by: rocadelpunk
Originally posted by: kevinthenerd
(1+x)^n = x^n is only approximately true for very large values of x.

but

(1+x)^1 = 1 + x
(1+x)^2 = 1 + x + x + x^2 = 1 + 2x + x^2
(1+x)^3 = 1 + x + x + x^2 + x + x^2 + x^2 + x^3 = 1 + 3x + 3x^2 + x^3

You might want to read http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_triangle


By the way, I thought I came up with something very cool one day, but it really bothered me to discover that I wasn't the first to come up with this idea for polynomials of three or more terms: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_pyramid

pretty impressive you came up with that on your own...can't believe you hadn't heard of pascal triangle though if you're messing around with binomial expansion.

I've heard of the Pascal triangle. It was the Pascal pyramid that I thought I invented. They don't teach you this stuff in mechanical engineering curriculum. It's just not that important.
 

kevinthenerd

Platinum Member
Jun 27, 2002
2,908
0
76
I got my bachelor's in ME this last December. I figured getting a master's would only hurt my job-hunting even more, so I've decided to learn masters level material at my own pace for the fun of it. Luckily, I downloaded enough grad-level video lectures before I left to fill about 50 DVD-Rs. I get about one course on each. That should hold me over for a few years. By then I will have acquired about four masters degrees' worth of education.

(Remember my thread on teaching myself Calc 3?)
 

ryan256

Platinum Member
Jul 22, 2005
2,514
0
71
Wait a minute... thats impossible. If you simplify by taking the n root of both sides you'd get:

(1+x)^n = x^n
((1+x)^n)^(1/n) = (x^n)^(1/n)
1+x = x

There's no way that can happen. No number can be equal to itself plus 1. Or am I missing something here?
 

kevinthenerd

Platinum Member
Jun 27, 2002
2,908
0
76
Originally posted by: ryan256
Wait a minute... thats impossible. If you simplify by taking the n root of both sides you'd get:

(1+x)^n = x^n
((1+x)^n)^(1/n) = (x^n)^(1/n)
1+x = x

There's no way that can happen. No number can be equal to itself plus 1. Or am I missing something here?

the rest of the thread
 

ryan256

Platinum Member
Jul 22, 2005
2,514
0
71
Originally posted by: kevinthenerd
Originally posted by: ryan256
Wait a minute... thats impossible. If you simplify by taking the n root of both sides you'd get:

(1+x)^n = x^n
((1+x)^n)^(1/n) = (x^n)^(1/n)
1+x = x

There's no way that can happen. No number can be equal to itself plus 1. Or am I missing something here?

the rest of the thread

Enlighten me then.
Yes I know about Pascal's Triangle and binomial coefficients.
That still doesn't change the fact that (1+x)^n = x^n is totally impossible unless n=0.
 

kevinthenerd

Platinum Member
Jun 27, 2002
2,908
0
76
Originally posted by: ryan256
Originally posted by: kevinthenerd
Originally posted by: ryan256
Wait a minute... thats impossible. If you simplify by taking the n root of both sides you'd get:

(1+x)^n = x^n
((1+x)^n)^(1/n) = (x^n)^(1/n)
1+x = x

There's no way that can happen. No number can be equal to itself plus 1. Or am I missing something here?

the rest of the thread

Enlighten me then.
Yes I know about Pascal's Triangle and binomial coefficients.
That still doesn't change the fact that (1+x)^n = x^n is totally impossible unless n=0.

I never said it was possible. n=0 is a trivial case. I already disproved it.
 

rocadelpunk

Diamond Member
Jul 23, 2001
5,589
1
81
Originally posted by: kevinthenerd
Originally posted by: rocadelpunk
Originally posted by: kevinthenerd
(1+x)^n = x^n is only approximately true for very large values of x.

but

(1+x)^1 = 1 + x
(1+x)^2 = 1 + x + x + x^2 = 1 + 2x + x^2
(1+x)^3 = 1 + x + x + x^2 + x + x^2 + x^2 + x^3 = 1 + 3x + 3x^2 + x^3

You might want to read http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_triangle


By the way, I thought I came up with something very cool one day, but it really bothered me to discover that I wasn't the first to come up with this idea for polynomials of three or more terms: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pascal_pyramid

pretty impressive you came up with that on your own...can't believe you hadn't heard of pascal triangle though if you're messing around with binomial expansion.

I've heard of the Pascal triangle. It was the Pascal pyramid that I thought I invented. They don't teach you this stuff in mechanical engineering curriculum. It's just not that important.

oops, I need to read better : P
 

sao123

Lifer
May 27, 2002
12,653
205
106
Originally posted by: Random Variable
(1+x)^n = x^n
((1+x)^n)^(1/n) = (x^n)^(1/n)
1^(1/n)*(1+x) = 1^(1/n)*x

You get a contradictory statement if you let the nth root of 1 be the same number on both sides of the equation. If you let them be different numbers, then you get all the solutions. Why is that?



X=0
 

DrPizza

Administrator Elite Member Goat Whisperer
Mar 5, 2001
49,601
167
111
www.slatebrookfarm.com
;;;;;
Originally posted by: sao123
Originally posted by: Random Variable
(1+x)^n = x^n
((1+x)^n)^(1/n) = (x^n)^(1/n)
1^(1/n)*(1+x) = 1^(1/n)*x

You get a contradictory statement if you let the nth root of 1 be the same number on both sides of the equation. If you let them be different numbers, then you get all the solutions. Why is that?



X=0

Rethink that. (1+0)^3 = 0^3?? Nope.

The only solution (as stated above) is the trivial solution when n=0. Otherwise, there are no solutions because x would have to equal x+1


Also, someone above said something about it being approximately true for large values of x. That depends on the value of n. If n is a positive integer, the difference between the two sides increases. But, if n is a negative integer, the two sides get closer to each other as x gets very large; in fact, both sides approach zero. (not that n necessarily has to be an integer though)
 

sao123

Lifer
May 27, 2002
12,653
205
106
Originally posted by: DrPizza
;;;;;
Originally posted by: sao123
Originally posted by: Random Variable
(1+x)^n = x^n
((1+x)^n)^(1/n) = (x^n)^(1/n)
1^(1/n)*(1+x) = 1^(1/n)*x

You get a contradictory statement if you let the nth root of 1 be the same number on both sides of the equation. If you let them be different numbers, then you get all the solutions. Why is that?



X=0

Rethink that. (1+0)^3 = 0^3?? Nope.

The only solution (as stated above) is the trivial solution when n=0. Otherwise, there are no solutions because x would have to equal x+1


Also, someone above said something about it being approximately true for large values of x. That depends on the value of n. If n is a positive integer, the difference between the two sides increases. But, if n is a negative integer, the two sides get closer to each other as x gets very large; in fact, both sides approach zero. (not that n necessarily has to be an integer though)



after i types it realized what i meant...
n=0.
 
Aug 10, 2001
10,420
2
0
I never stated that x must be restricted to the reals.

let's take n=4 for example

(1+x)^4 = x^4
1^(1/4)*(1+x) = 1^(1/4)*x

the 4th roots of 1 are 1, -1, i, and -i

so the possibilities are 1+x=-x, 1+x=ix, 1+x=-ix, -(1+x)=ix, -(1+x)=-ix, etc. (with some answers repeating)

If you use the binomial theorem, you'll have to solve 4x^3+6x^2+4x+1=0 (which isn't too hard to factor). But for larger n, factoring becomes impossible.

EDIT: The answers are -1/2, -1/2+i/2, and -1/2-i/2, so one of the answers is real and the other two are complex