Recent content by Siwy

That?s right your numbers were crude and inaccurate. There is no disagreement between 7% of total cultivable land and 20% of pre-67? cultivable land at the inception of Israel ~ so I?m not sure what your argument is. If it takes me 10 posts and 2 days to convince you that your straight...

There is a major difference between 33% Jewish ownership and 7% Jewish ownership (cultivable land only). Remember you removed the desert and water to achieve 33%. And the 7% excludes those as well. You?re starting to get pathetic at this point. It?s like talking to a mental patient. Of...

You just proved yourself that your original formula and percentage is crap! And it took me 8 freaking posts to get it through your thick skull. Take a look at your original number and the numbers we are talking about now, they don?t match, you were wrong, you are the dense one and lacking the...

I didn?t change the value of X, because I shouldn?t according to your formula. You took the total land owned by Jews, I took the rest of the total land owned by Arabs and others. This is your formula! And you are right, it is wrong! If you use total Jewish land which was 1,874,000 sq km...

I was just trying to show you how full of crap you are. If you did your ?legwork? you?d realize it yourself. According to your calculations Jews owned 33% of the land: X = 1,874 sq km (Land owned by Jews in 1947 ) Y = 5693 sq km (pre-1967 Israel minus Negev and Water) F = 33% (X / Y)...

If you re-read my post above you will see that that is what I?m talking about, land ownership prior/at Israel?s inception, ?area that would become Israel in 1948? So now that we have Israeli land ownership percentage, can I see your calculation for public land ownership and Arab land...

Well, I?m trying to figure out how much land was owned by Jews, Arabs and governing body in the area that would become Israel in 1948 ~ since that is the land that is considered stolen by many people and that is what started the conflict. So, if we take a look at Israel?s land at its...

Comprehension isn?t the problem ~ the problem is inadequate explanation ;) And the issue still remains ~ why do you use TOTAL Jewish owned land in your calculations, as opposed to Jewish owned land inside the pre-1967 borders?

Looking at your source it seems that you took a TOTAL of Jewish land ownership, which was 463,000 acres (1,874 sq km) ~ you did not divide it by X, how much more inacurate can you get?

That is not a very realistic calculation ~ you?re assuming that Jewish land ownership was evenly distributed throughout the whole Palestinian land, which was not the case. And why would you remove Negev area from the calculation? Wasn?t that land also annexed by Israel?

Let me get this straight. You took the total area of the land that Jews owned in the whole of Palestine and subtracted it from the pre-1967 land? Or am I missing something? Source for your numbers would also be nice ;)

So how much is ?quiet a bit?? What was the percentage of land ownership by Jews? Please enlighten us.

Reading opinions of analysts, historians, people involved in the conflict and news networks makes me informed, not biased. Just because you saw an aftermath of suicide bombing does not make you more knowledgeable. It?s much more likely that it made you more emotional and we all know how...

Considering I have nothing to do with this conflict and the closest connection I can think of is that I have Jews married into my family, I don?t think I am biased and I have nothing to gain by supporting either side. I?m simply looking at all facts, reading editorials (from both sides), and...

At the same time you admit of being biased ~ which clouds your judgment and makes you cherry-pick the information that suits your point of view. When the Israeli leader admits of willingness to terrorize innocent population, it doesn?t take an idiot to figure out that Israel intentionally...